So, the interrelatedness of (potential?) definitions precedes existence. Then, by the way this particular definition is set up, the definition asserts that it exists logically inevitably. Now, it is actual relative to itself. If the universe were the definition (or the structure so defined), we would not know the difference between existing in the sense of T (in the sense of the definition) and existence in some outside, preconceived sense. This case of relative existence is just as valid as "absolute" existence.
That is a synopsis of the reasoning.
What do you think about it?
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